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Right to Information (RTI) Act 2005 | MCQs Paper - 1 | English Medium
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1. The primary objective of the Right to Information Act, 2005 is to:
a. Confer absolute freedom of speech
b. Establish a regime of right to information for citizens
c. Abolish official secrecy
d. Punish public servants for non-disclosure
2. Access to information under the RTI Act, 2005 is secured from information that is:
a. Created by citizens
b. Published in public domain
c. Under the control of public authorities
d. Held by private individuals
3. The RTI Act, 2005 seeks to promote transparency and accountability in the working of:
a. Only Central Government authorities
b. Only State Government authorities
c. Public sector undertakings only
d. Every public authority
4. Apart from providing access to information, the RTI Act, 2005 also provides for the constitution of:
a. Lokpal and Lokayuktas
b. Vigilance Commissions
c. Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions
d. Human Rights Commissions
5. The constitutional philosophy underlying the RTI Act, 2005 is rooted in the idea that India is a:
a. Sovereign Socialist Secular Republic
b. Democratic Republic
c. Welfare State
d. Federal Polity
6. According to the Preamble, democracy requires which of the following as vital to its functioning?
a. Judicial independence
b. Parliamentary supremacy
c. Informed citizenry and transparency of information
d. Free market economy
7. Transparency of information is considered necessary under the RTI Act, 2005 primarily to:
a. Improve economic growth
b. Reduce litigation
c. Contain corruption and hold Governments accountable
d. Strengthen federalism
8. Accountability under the RTI Act, 2005 is intended to be towards:
a. Parliament
b. Judiciary
c. The Executive
d. The Governed
9. The Preamble acknowledges that revelation of information in actual practice may conflict with:
a. Fundamental Rights of citizens
b. Judicial independence
c. Other public interests
d. Parliamentary privileges
10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a competing public interest that may conflict with disclosure of information?
a. Efficient operations of the Government
b. Optimum use of limited fiscal resources
c. Preservation of confidentiality of sensitive information
d. Protection of private commercial monopolies
11. The RTI Act, 2005 seeks to harmonise conflicting interests while preserving the paramountcy of:
a. National security
b. Executive discretion
c. Democratic ideal
d. Judicial review
12. The phrase “matters connected therewith or incidental thereto” in the Preamble indicates:
a. Penal provisions only
b. Narrow interpretation of the Act
c. Ancillary and supplementary provisions
d. Delegation of legislative power
13. The RTI Act, 2005 was enacted by Parliament in which year of the Republic of India?
a. Fifty-fourth
b. Fifty-fifth
c. Fifty-sixth
d. Fifty-seventh
14. The enacting formula “Be it enacted by Parliament” signifies:
a. Presidential rule
b. Delegated legislation
c. Parliamentary sovereignty
d. Judicial approval
15. The Right to Information Act, 2005 received Presidential assent on:
a. 12th May, 2005
b. 15th June, 2005
c. 26th January, 2005
d. 2nd October, 2005
16. The correct short title of the statute governing the right to information is:
a. Right to Information Act, 2004
b. Freedom of Information Act, 2005
c. Right to Information Act, 2005
d. Transparency Act, 2005
17. The Right to Information Act, 2005 extends to:
a. Whole of India including Union Territories
b. Whole of India
c. Whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir
d. Whole of India except Scheduled Areas
18. Which of the following provisions of the RTI Act, 2005 came into force at once?
a. Sections 3, 6 and 7
b. Sections 12, 13, 15 and 16 only
c. Sections 4(1), 5(1), 5(2), 12, 13, 15, 16, 24, 27 and 28
d. Entire Act
19. The remaining provisions of the RTI Act, 2005 came into force after:
a. 60 days from enactment
b. 90 days from enactment
c. 120 days from enactment
d. One year from enactment
20. Which of the following correctly states the commencement scheme of the RTI Act, 2005?
a. Entire Act commenced on the date of enactment
b. Entire Act commenced after 120 days
c. Some provisions commenced immediately and others after 120 days
d. Commencement depended on State notification
21. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
a. Section 12 – Central Information Commission
b. Section 15 – State Information Commission
c. Section 27 – Power to make rules
d. Section 7 – Immediate commencement
22. Sections 12, 13, 15 and 16 were brought into force immediately mainly to:
a. Grant immediate right to information
b. Establish Information Commissions in advance
c. Prescribe penalties
d. Regulate application fees
23. Which section relating to rule-making power came into force at once under Section 1(3)?
a. Section 25
b. Section 26
c. Section 27
d. Section 29
24. The term “appropriate Government” defined under section 2(a) in the RTI Act, 2005 is relevant only when:
a. The public authority is privately owned
b. The public authority is established, owned, controlled or substantially financed by government funds provided directly or indirectly by the central /state government and UT
c. The citizen requests information from NGOs
d. The Act applies to foreign companies operating in India
25. “Central Information Commission” defied under section 2(b) means:
a. A commission established under the Companies Act
b. The Central Information Commission constituted under Section 12(1) of the RTI Act, 2005
c. State Information Commissions collectively
d. National Human Rights Commission
26. Who is included in the term “Central Public Information Officer” defined under section 2(c) the RTI Act, 2005?
a. Only the Central Minister responsible for RTI
b. Officers designated under Section 5(1) and Central Assistant Public Information Officers under Section 5(2)
c. Any government employee who receives an RTI application
d. Only officers of the Central Vigilance Commission
27. The term “Chief Information Commissioner” and “Information Commissioner” defined under section 2(d) of the RTI Act, 2005 refers to:
a. An officer appointed under Section 4(1)
b. An officer appointed under Section 12(3)
c. Any officer designated by the Central Government
d. State-level officers under Section 15
28. In the RTI Act, 2005, “competent authority” defined under section 2(e) means?
a. President
b. Speaker, CJI of SC, CJI of HC, President or Governor and an administrator appointed under section 239
c. Chief Minister
d. Prime Minister
29. The “competent authority” for the Council of States or Legislative Council of a State is:
a. Speaker
b. Chairman
c. Governor
d. Chief Justice of High Court
30. Under the RTI Act, 2005, “information” defined under section 2(f) includes:
a. Only paper records and files
b. Records, documents, memos, emails, opinions, advice, press releases, circulars, orders, contracts, reports, samples, models, electronic data, and information relating to private bodies accessible under law
c. Only official reports
d. Only electronic data
31. Which of the following is TRUE about the definition of “information” under the RTI Act, 2005?
a. It excludes electronic records
b. It includes any material in any form accessible by a public authority under any other law
c. It covers only government-owned material
d. It excludes opinions and advices
32. The term “prescribed” under Section 2(g) means:
a. Determined by judicial order
b. Determined by law of the land
c. Prescribed by rules made under the Act by the appropriate Government or competent authority
d. Determined by the citizen applying under RTI
33. Which of the following is NOT a method by which a “public authority” may be established under Section 2(h)?
a. By or under the Constitution
b. By any other law made by Parliament
c. By notification or order of the appropriate Government
d. By private company agreement with citizens
34. A “public authority” includes bodies which are:
a. Owned, controlled, or substantially financed by the appropriate Government
b. Private companies with no government funding
c. Non-government organizations not receiving government funds
d. All international organizations
35. A “public authority” may include a non-government organization if:
a. It operates independently
b. It is substantially financed directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government
c. It is fully privately funded
d. It is established under foreign law
36. The definition of “public authority” ensures that:
a. Only central government bodies are covered
b. Bodies receiving substantial public funds are accountable under RTI
c. NGOs are never covered
d. Private corporations are automatically covered
37. Under the RTI Act, 2005, the term “record” defined under section 2(i) includes:
a. Only paper files
b. Only electronic documents
c. Documents, manuscripts, files, microfilm, microfiche, facsimile copies, computer-produced material, and reproductions of images
d. Only images and photographs
38. A reproduction of images embodied in microfilm under the definition of “record” may be:
a. Only original size
b. Enlarged or not enlarged
c. Only in print form
d. Only in electronic form
39. Under Section 2(j), the “right to information” means the right to access information held by:
a. Any private individual
b. Any public authority
c. Only the Central Government
d. Only State Governments
40. The “right to information” includes the right to inspect:
a. Work, documents, and records
b. Only final reports
c. Only financial statements
d. Only historical data
41. A citizen exercising the “right to information” may take:
a. Notes, extracts, or certified copies of documents or records
b. Only verbal summaries
c. Only digital images
d. Only partial information
42. Certified samples of material can be obtained under the “right to information.” This right is provided under:
a. Section 4
b. Section 2(j)
c. Section 6
d. Section 12
43. Information stored in a computer or other device can be obtained in which forms under the RTI Act, 2005?
a. Diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes, electronic mode, or printouts
b. Only in printouts
c. Only verbal communication
d. Only email
44. The “State Information Commission” defined under section 2(k) is constituted under which section of the RTI Act, 2005?
a. Section 12(1)
b. Section 15(1)
c. Section 4(1)
d. Section 5(1)
45. The “State Chief Information Commissioner” and “State Information Commissioner” defined under section 2(l) are appointed under:
a. Section 12(3)
b. Section 15(3)
c. Section 5(1)
d. Section 16(1)
46. The “State Public Information Officer” defined under section 2(m) includes:
a. Only the Chief Minister
b. State Public Information Officer designated under Section 5(1) and State Assistant Public Information Officer under Section 5(2)
c. Only the State Information Commissioner
d. All government employees
47. Under the RTI Act, 2005, “third party” defined under section 2(n) means:
a. Only private individuals
b. Any person other than the citizen making the request, including a public authority
c. Only public authorities
d. Only companies
48. Under Section 3 of the RTI Act, 2005, who has the right to information?
a. Any person residing in India
b. Only government officials
c. All citizens of India
d. Any foreign national
49. The “right to information” under Section 3 of the RTI Act, 2005 is:
a. Absolute and unlimited
b. Subject to the provisions of this Act
c. Only applicable to Central Government records
d. Only applicable to electronic records
50. Under Section 4(1)(a) of the RTI Act, 2005, every public authority shall maintain all its records in:
a. Any format the authority chooses
b. A manner and form that facilitates the right to information
c. Only paper format
d. Only electronic format
51. Section 4(1)(a) requires that records appropriate to be computerized shall be:
a. Computerized only if requested by a citizen
b. Computerized within a reasonable time and subject to availability of resources
c. Computerized immediately without resource considerations
d. Not computerized
52. According to Section 4(1)(b), public authorities must publish particulars of their organisation, functions, and duties within:
a. 60 days from enactment
b. 90 days from enactment
c. 120 days from enactment
d. One year from enactment
53. Which of the following is required to be published under Section 4(1)(b)(i)?
a. The particulars of its organisation, functions and duties
b. Powers and duties of officers and employees
c. Judicial orders
d. Only financial statements
54. Which of the following is required to be published under Section 4(1)(b)(ii)?
a. Personal data of citizens
b. Powers and duties of officers and employees
c. Judicial orders
d. Only financial statements
55. Section 4(1)(b)(iii) requires the publication of:
a. The procedure followed in the decision-making process, including channels of supervision and accountability
b. Only final decisions
c. Only budgetary allocations
d. Only disciplinary actions
56. Section 4(1)(b)(iv) mandates publication of:
a. The rules for disciplinary actions
b. The norms set by the authority for discharging its functions
c. Only salary details of employees
d. Only contracts with private parties
57. According to Section 4(1)(b)(v), a public authority must publish:
a. Only classified records
b. Rules, regulations, instructions, manuals, and records used by employees for discharging functions
c. Only policies notified in the Gazette
d. Only contracts with citizens
58. Section 4(1)(b)(vi) requires a statement of:
a. Financial audits
b. Categories of documents held or under its control
c. Judicial decisions
d. Only electronic records
59. Which of the following is included under Section 4(1)(b)(vii)?
a. Particulars of consultations or representation by the public in policy formulation or implementation
b. Confidential internal emails
c. Details of private companies
d. Only budgetary decisions
60. Section 4(1)(b)(viii) mandates disclosure of:
a. All contracts with foreign companies
b. Boards, councils, committees, and whether their meetings are open or minutes accessible to the public
c. Only the chairperson’s decisions
d. Private communications between officers
61. Under Section 4(1)(b)(ix), authorities must publish:
a. Personal addresses of citizens
b. A directory of its officers and employees
c. Only financial details of employees
d. Only senior management information
62. Section 4(1)(b)(x) requires publishing:
a. Only the total salary budget
b. Monthly remuneration of each officer/employee, including the system of compensation as provided in regulations
c. Only allowances
d. Only contractual employee salaries
63. Section 4(1)(b)(xi) mandates publication of:
a. The national budget
b. Budget allocated to each agency, including plans, proposed expenditures, and disbursement reports
c. Only salary allocations
d. Only grants to NGOs
64. Section 4(1)(b)(xii) requires disclosure of:
a. Personal citizen data
b. Manner of execution of subsidy programmes, amounts allocated, and details of beneficiaries
c. Only internal office procedures
d. Only foreign aid received
65. Section 4(1)(b)(xiii) mandates publication of:
a. Only internal minutes of meetings
b. Particulars of recipients of concessions, permits, or authorisations granted by the authority
c. Only audit reports
d. Only contracts exceeding Rs. 1 crore
66. Section 4(1)(b)(xiv) requires:
a. Disclosure of all information in paper format only
b. Disclosure of information available or held in electronic form
c. Disclosure of only confidential information
d. Disclosure only upon citizen request
67. Under Section 4(1)(b)(xv), public authorities must publish:
a. Only budget information
b. Particulars of facilities available to citizens for obtaining information, including working hours of a library or reading room, if maintained
c. Only contact details of officers
d. Only office rules
68. Section 4(1)(b)(xvi) requires the publication of:
a. Personal addresses of citizens
b. Names, designations, and other particulars of the Public Information Officers
c. Only Chief Information Commissioner details
d. Only financial officers’ details
69. Under Section 4(1)(b)(xvii), authorities must publish:
a. Information as may be prescribed under rules made by the appropriate government or competent authority
b. Only financial audits
c. Only contracts exceeding Rs. 1 crore
d. Only confidential information
70. Public authorities are required to:
a. Publish all information once and never update
b. Update publications every year thereafter
c. Update only when a citizen requests
d. Update only for financial records
71. Section 4(1)(c) mandates that authorities must publish:
a. Internal office communications
b. All relevant facts while formulating important policies or announcing decisions affecting the public
c. Only budget allocations
d. Only personal details of officers
72. Section 4(1)(d) requires public authorities to:
a. Keep all administrative decisions confidential
b. Provide reasons for administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to affected persons
c. Disclose only policy-related decisions
d. Disclose only financial decisions
73. Section 4(2) emphasizes:
a. Citizens must always apply under RTI to get information
b. Public authorities must proactively provide as much information suomotu at regular intervals through various means including internet
c. Authorities need not disclose information proactively
d. Only judicial decisions are to be disseminated proactively
74. Section 4(3) mandates that information shall be:
a. Disseminated only upon request
b. Disseminated widely and in a form easily accessible to the public
c. Published in secret internal files
d. Published only in annual reports
75. Section 4(4) requires dissemination to consider:
a. Cost effectiveness, local language, and most effective method of communication in that area
b. Only the convenience of officers
c. Only the convenience of central authorities
d. Only publication in English
76. According to Section 4(4), the information should be:
a. Accessible in electronic format as much as possible, free or at prescribed cost
b. Provided only in paper format
c. Provided only after a citizen files an RTI request
d. Restricted to senior officers
77. The Explanation under Section 4(3) and (4) clarifies that “disseminated” means:
a. Making known or communicating the information to the public through notice boards, newspapers, public announcements, media broadcasts, internet, or any other means, including inspection of offices
b. Only publishing annual financial statements
c. Only distributing information to senior officers
d. Only uploading on government websites
78. Section 4 emphasizes that accessibility should take into account:
a. Cost effectiveness, local language, and method of communication suitable for the area
b. Only central government directives
c. Only internal office procedures
d. Only confidential information
79. Under Section 5(1), every public authority must designate officers as Central or State Public Information Officers within:
a. 60 days of enactment
b. 100 days of enactment
c. 120 days of enactment
d. 150 days of enactment
80. The purpose of designating Public Information Officers under Section 5(1) is:
a. To maintain internal office records
b. To provide information to persons requesting under the RTI Act
c. To supervise government employees
d. To approve all financial transactions
81. Section 5(2) requires designation of officers at sub-divisional or sub-district levels as:
a. Only Central or State Public Information Officers
b. Central or State Assistant Public Information Officers
c. Only senior officers
d. Only administrative officers
82. The role of an Central Assistant Public Information Officer (APIO) is to:
a. Forward applications for information or appeals to the relevant PIO or Information Commission
b. Reject RTI applications
c. Supervise other officers
d. Handle only financial information
83. According to the proviso in Section 5(2), if an application is submitted to an CAPIO, the response period under Section 7:
a. Remains the same
b. Is reduced by five days
c. Has five days added in computing the response period
d. Does not apply
84. Section 5(3) requires every PIO to:
a. Ignore citizen requests if inconvenient
b. Deal with requests and render reasonable assistance to persons seeking information
c. Only provide information after senior approval
d. Delegate all requests to subordinate officers
85. Under Section 5(4), a PIO may:
a. Seek assistance from any other officer as necessary for proper discharge of duties
b. Refuse to provide information if the officer is absent
c. Ignore requests received through APIOs
d. Only consult senior officers
86. Section 5(5) specifies that any officer whose assistance has been sought by a PIO:
a. Can refuse assistance
b. Must render all assistance to the PIO
c. Is not bound by the Act
d. Only assists if compensated
87. For purposes of contravention of the RTI Act, an officer assisting a PIO is treated as:
a. A senior officer only
b. A Central or State Public Information Officer
c. Not responsible
d. Only an administrative officer
88. The combined effect of Section 5 is to ensure:
a. Hierarchical approval before information can be provided
b. Accessibility of RTI applications at all administrative levels through designated PIOs and APIOs
c. Only senior officers handle RTI applications
d. Citizens must apply directly to the Information Commission
89. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the PIO and APIO system under Section 5?
a. Only Central Government authorities designate PIOs
b. Public authorities must designate sufficient PIOs in all administrative units, and APIOs at sub-divisional level
c. Only one PIO is sufficient for the entire state
d. APIOs can refuse forwarding applications to PIOs
90. Section 5(5) ensures accountability because:
a. Any officer assisting a PIO is treated as a PIO for contravention purposes
b. Only the Chief Information Commissioner is responsible for non-compliance
c. Only citizens are penalized for late applications
d. PIOs are not accountable for assistance from other officers
91. Under Section 6(1), a person desiring information must make a request:
a. Only in Hindi
b. In writing or through electronic means
c. Only in English
d. Only orally
92. The language of the RTI request under Section 6(1) can be:
a. Only English
b. English, Hindi, or the official language of the area where the application is made
c. Any foreign language
d. Only Hindi
93. Section 6(1) requires that the request be accompanied by:
a. Personal reasons for seeking information
b. Any fee as may be prescribed
c. Recommendation from an officer
d. Only signature
94. To whom can an RTI request be made under Section 6(1)?
a. Only to the Chief Information Commissioner
b. To the Central or State Public Information Officer, or the Central or State Assistant Public Information Officer of the concerned authority
c. Only to the Prime Minister or Chief Minister
d. Only to senior officers of the government
95. Section 6(1) provides that if a request cannot be made in writing:
a. The request will be rejected
b. The PIO shall render all reasonable assistance to the applicant to reduce the request into writing
c. The applicant must hire a lawyer
d. The request will be postponed indefinitely
96. Under Section 6(2), an applicant making a request:
a. Must provide reasons for seeking the information
b. Must provide personal details like age and occupation
c. Shall not be required to give any reason or personal details except those necessary for contacting him
d. Must disclose financial information
97. If an application is made to a public authority for information held by another public authority (Section 6(3)), the receiving authority must:
a. Ignore the request
b. Transfer the application or relevant part to the other public authority and inform the applicant immediately
c. Forward only if the applicant requests again
d. Reject it outright
98. Under Section 6(3), when the subject matter of the request is more closely connected with another public authority, the receiving authority:
a. Must handle it themselves
b. Must transfer the application to that authority and notify the applicant
c. Can delay the transfer indefinitely
d. Can deny the request without reason
99. According to the proviso to Section 6(3), the transfer of an RTI application must be made:
a. Within 1 day of receipt
b. As soon as practicable, but in no case later than five days from the date of receipt
c. Within 30 days of receipt
d. Within 60 days of receipt
100. Under Section 7(1), a PIO must provide information or reject the request:
a. Within 15 days of receipt
b. As expeditiously as possible, and in any case within 30 days of receipt of the request
c. Within 60 days of receipt
d. Only after approval by senior officers
101. If the information requested concerns the life or liberty of a person, Section 7(1) requires the PIO to provide it within:
a. 7 days
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 30 days
102. According to Section 7(2), if a PIO fails to give a decision within the period specified, the request shall be:
a. Extended automatically for 30 more days
b. Deemed to have been refused
c. Transferred to the appellate authority automatically
d. Ignored
103. Section 7(3) provides that when a further fee is charged for providing information, the PIO must:
a. Send an intimation to the applicant giving details of the fee and calculations
b. Provide information without fee
c. Approve the fee internally only
d. Reject the application automatically
104. Under Section 7(3)(a), the period between despatch of intimation and payment of the further fee:
a. Counts towards the 30-day period
b. Is excluded from the 30-day calculation
c. Must be doubled
d. Is irrelevant
105. Section 7(3)(b) requires that the PIO inform the applicant about:
a. Only the fee amount
b. Their rights regarding review of the fee charged or form of access, including appellate authority, time limits, process, and other forms
c. Only the timeline for providing information
d. Only the office address of the PIO
106. The proviso to Section 7(1) emphasizes:
a. Faster provision of information when life or liberty is involved
b. That PIOs can delay requests arbitrarily
c. That only senior officers handle sensitive cases
d. That fees can be waived in all cases
107. Section 7 ensures accountability by providing that a failure to respond within the time limit is treated as:
a. Automatic acceptance of the request
b. Deemed refusal
c. Delay without consequence
d. Escalation to the Prime Minister
108. The calculation of the 30-day period under Section 7 excludes:
a. Weekends and public holidays only
b. The time between despatch of intimation for further fees and actual payment
c. Time taken by the appellate authority
d. Time taken to verify identity
109. Section 7 collectively ensures:
a. Timely disposal of RTI requests, special treatment for life/liberty cases, accountability for delays, and transparency regarding fees and rights
b. Delays in providing information
c. Only fee collection without timelines
d. Restriction of access to senior officers only
110. Under Section 7(4), if the person seeking information is sensorily disabled, the PIO shall:
a. Refuse the request
b. Provide assistance to enable access, including inspection assistance
c. Only provide printed information
d. Require a guardian to apply
111. According to Section 7(5), when access to information is provided in printed or electronic format, the applicant shall:
a. Always pay any fee demanded
b. Pay the fee as prescribed, subject to Section 6(6) exemptions
c. Never pay a fee
d. Pay only if requested orally
112. The proviso to Section 7(5) states that no fee shall be charged from:
a. Senior citizens only
b. Persons below the poverty line (BPL) as determined by the appropriate government
c. All government employees
d. All citizens applying for budget information
113. Section 7(6) provides that if the public authority fails to comply with the time limits in sub-section (1):
a. The request is automatically rejected
b. The information shall be provided free of charge
c. The applicant must pay double the fee
d. The request is ignored
114. Before taking any decision under Section 7(1), the PIO shall:
a. Ignore third-party objections
b. Take into consideration any representation made by a third party under Section 11
c. Only consult senior officers
d. Decide arbitrarily
115. If a request is rejected under Section 7(1), the PIO must communicate to the applicant:
a. Only that it is rejected
b. Reasons for rejection, period to file appeal, and particulars of the appellate authority
c. Only the appellate authority
d. Only the time to reapply
116. Under Section 7(9), information shall ordinarily be provided in:
a. Any format chosen by the PIO
b. The form in which it is sought unless it would disproportionately divert resources or harm the record
c. Only printed format
d. Only electronic format
117. Section 7 collectively ensures:
a. Timely disposal, fee transparency, assistance to disabled persons, appeal rights, consideration of third-party representations, and format accessibility
b. Delays in processing requests
c. Fees are waived for all citizens
d. No accountability for PIOs
118. Under Section 8(1)(a), information is exempt from disclosure if it:
a. Relates to personal opinions of citizens
b. Prejudicially affects the sovereignty and integrity of India, security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relations with foreign States, or leads to incitement of an offence
c. Relates to routine administrative matters
d. Is requested by a citizen only for academic purposes
119. Section 8(1)(b) exempts information:
a. Forbidden to be published by any court or tribunal or which may constitute contempt of court
b. About government budgets
c. Provided in newspapers
d. Available on websites
120. Information is exempt under Section 8(1)(c) if its disclosure:
a. Causes inconvenience to citizens
b. Breaches the privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature
c. Is requested by a political party
d. Is related to budget allocations
121. Section 8(1)(d) protects:
a. Only government-owned secrets
b. Commercial confidence, trade secrets, or intellectual property of third parties unless larger public interest warrants disclosure
c. Citizens’ personal opinions
d. Only internal office notes
122. Section 8(1)(e) exempts information:
a. Available to a person in a fiduciary relationship, unless larger public interest warrants disclosure
b. Already published in newspapers
c. Budget allocations of the government
d. General policy documents
123. Under Section 8(1)(f), information received in confidence from a foreign government:
a. Can always be disclosed
b. Shall not be disclosed
c. Can be disclosed if requested by citizens
d. Is only partially exempt
124. Section 8(1)(g) exempts information which:
a. Endangers the life or physical safety of any person or identifies the source of confidential information used in law enforcement or security
b. Relates to office furniture
c. Is outdated by more than five years
d. Relates to official notices
125. Section 8(1)(h) protects information which:
a. Could impede investigation, apprehension, or prosecution of offenders
b. Is in the public domain
c. Relates to salaries of employees
d. Is published in newspapers
126. Section 8(1)(i) exempts:
a. Cabinet papers and records of deliberations of Council of Ministers, Secretaries, and other officers
b. Only financial statements
c. Routine office memos
d. All public policy documents
127. According to the proviso to Section 8(1)(i), decisions of the Council of Ministers, reasons, and supporting material shall:
a. Never be disclosed
b. Be made public after the decision is taken and the matter is complete, unless the information falls under other exemptions
c. Be disclosed immediately
d. Be kept secret indefinitely
128. Section 8(1)(j) provides exemption for:
a. Trade secrets only
b. Personal information
c. Budgetary allocations
d. Cabinet decisions
129. Section 8(2) provides that notwithstanding the exemptions in Section 8(1):
a. No information can ever be disclosed
b. A public authority may disclose information if public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to protected interests
c. Only courts can allow disclosure
d. Only senior officers can decide disclosure
130. Section 8(3) allows disclosure of information relating to events that occurred:
a. 10 years before the request
b. 20 years before the request, subject to exemptions in clauses (a), (c), and (i)
c. Only 50 years before the request
d. Only after approval by the Prime Minister
131. In case of dispute regarding the date from which the 20-year period under Section 8(3) is computed:
a. The citizen decides
b. The Central Government’s decision is final, subject to usual appeals under the Act
c. The High Court decides immediately
d. The PIO decides
132. The key objectives of Section 8 are:
a. Protect sovereignty, security, commercial confidence, personal privacy, law enforcement processes, cabinet deliberations, while balancing disclosure in larger public interest
b. Prevent disclosure of all government information
c. Allow arbitrary discretion to officers
d. Delay disclosure indefinitely
133. Under Section 9, a PIO may reject an RTI request if providing access would:
a. Involve an infringement of copyright subsisting in a person other than the State
b. Violate Section 6 procedures
c. Be inconvenient for the PIO
d. Be related to a citizen’s personal opinion
134. Section 9 applies:
a. Only to government-owned materials
b. Only where the information requested is copyrighted by someone other than the State
c. To all types of information
d. To personal information of citizens
135. Section 9 must be read in conjunction with:
a. Section 7 only
b. Section 8 – exemptions from disclosure
c. Section 6 only
d. Section 12 only
136. Which of the following is TRUE under Section 9?
a. The PIO can reject requests arbitrarily
b. Copyrighted material owned by private individuals cannot be disclosed under RTI without consent, even if the material is held by a public authority
c. All copyrighted material must be disclosed regardless of ownership
d. Section 9 overrides all other sections, including public interest provisions
137. Section 9 ensures that:
a. Public authorities respect copyright laws while providing access to information
b. All information held by public authorities is freely accessible
c. Copyrighted material owned by the State can never be disclosed
d. Citizens can bypass copyright restrictions
138. Under Section 10(1), if a record contains exempt information, the PIO shall:
a. Reject the entire request
b. Provide access to that part of the record which does not contain exempt information and can reasonably be severed
c. Release all information without distinction
d. Forward the request to a higher authority
139. Section 10(2) requires the PIO, when granting partial access, to:
a. Only provide the record without explanation
b. Send a notice to the applicant informing them that only part of the record is provided after severance
c. Charge additional fees without explanation
d. Ignore the exemptions
140. According to Section 10(2), the notice to the applicant must include:
a. Reasons for the decision, including findings on any material question of fact and references to supporting material
b. Only the date of request
c. Only the name of the applicant
d. Only the amount of the fee
141. Section 10(2) requires the notice to also include:
a. Name and designation of the PIO giving the decision
b. List of all exempted citizens
c. Summary of all government decisions
d. Nothing else, only the record
142. The notice under Section 10(2) must also contain:
a. The details of the fees calculated and the amount to be deposited by the applicant
b. Only the procedural manual
c. Information about unrelated government files
d. Previous RTI requests of other citizens
143. Section 10(2)(e) requires the PIO to inform the applicant of:
a. Their rights to review the decision regarding non-disclosure of part of the information, the amount of fee charged, or the form of access, including appellate authorities and time limits
b. The names of all employees
c. Only the reasons for rejection
d. Only the date of receiving the request
144. The key objective of Section 10 is:
a. To reject all partially exempt information
b. To ensure that citizens get access to all non-exempt portions of a record while respecting exemptions
c. To avoid disclosure of any information
d. To give full access regardless of exemptions
145. Severability under Section 10 ensures:
a. Maximum disclosure consistent with law while safeguarding exempt information
b. Complete secrecy of all records
c. Automatic appeal to the Central Information Commission
d. Waiver of fees for all applicants
146. Section 10 protects both:
a. The citizen’s right to information and the State’s interest in exempt information
b. Only the State’s interests
c. Only the citizen’s interests
d. Only the PIO’s discretion
147. In practical terms, Section 10 is often applied when:
a. An RTI request contains both confidential cabinet papers and general policy documents
b. A citizen requests personal opinions of the PIO
c. All information is already publicly available
d. The applicant is not eligible
148. Under Section 11(1), when a PIO intends to disclose information supplied by a third party and treated as confidential, the PIO must:
a. Disclose immediately without notice
b. Give written notice to the third party within 5 days from receipt of the request and invite submission for or against disclosure
c. Wait for the applicant to consult the third party
d. Reject the request automatically
149. Section 11(1) provides that disclosure may be allowed despite third-party objection if:
a. The third party is a government agency
b. Public interest in disclosure outweighs any possible harm to the third party, except for trade or commercial secrets protected by law
c. The PIO decides arbitrarily
d. The applicant pays additional fees
150. Under Section 11(2), the third party has how many days to make a representation against proposed disclosure?
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days
151. Section 11(3) requires that the PIO must make a decision regarding disclosure within:
a. 15 days from receipt of the request
b. 30 days from the applicant’s request
c. 40 days from receipt of the request if the third party has been given an opportunity to make representation
d. 60 days in all cases
152. A notice given under Section 11(3) must include:
a. Statement that the third party can prefer an appeal under Section 19
b. Only the amount of fees
c. Only the details of the applicant
d. Only the timeline for disclosure
153. Section 11 ensures that:
a. Citizens can access any information immediately
b. Confidentiality of third-party information is protected while allowing disclosure in public interest
c. The third party can block disclosure indefinitely
d. Trade secrets are always disclosed
154. Which of the following is TRUE under Section 11?
a. The PIO can ignore third-party objections
b. Third-party submissions must be considered before making a disclosure decision
c. The PIO can disclose trade secrets even if it harms the third party
d. No notice is required if the applicant is a government official
155. Timelines under Section 11 are:
a. 5 days for notice to third party, 10 days for third-party representation, 40 days for final decision
b.7 days for notice, 20 days for representation, 60 days for decision
c. 10 days for notice, 5 days for representation, 30 days for decision
d. Flexible and not defined
156. Section 11(1) explicitly excludes which category from public interest override?
a. All third-party objections
b. Trade or commercial secrets protected by law
c. Personal information of applicants
d. Government budget information
157. The objective of Section 11 is to:
a. Ensure automatic disclosure of all third-party information
b. Balance transparency for citizens with protection of confidential information of third parties, considering public interest
c. Give third parties absolute veto over disclosure
d. Waive fees for third-party records
158. Under Section 12(1), the Central Government shall constitute the Central Information Commission by:
a. Executive order only
b. Notification in the Official Gazette
c. Approval of the Parliament
d. Nomination of the Prime Minister alone
159. The Central Information Commission consists of:
a. Only the Chief Information Commissioner
b. Chief Information Commissioner and such number of Central Information Commissioners not exceeding ten as deemed necessary
c. Ten Information Commissioners only
d. Chief Justice of India and Information Commissioners
160. Who appoints the Chief Information Commissioner and the Information Commissioners?
a. Prime Minister
b. President on the recommendation of a committee
c. Central Government Secretary
d. Supreme Court
161. The recommending committee for CIC appointments consists of:
a. Prime Minister (Chairperson), Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM
b. Only the Prime Minister
c. Chief Justice of India and Law Minister
d. President and Vice President
162. If there is no recognised Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, who is deemed to be the Leader of Opposition for the purpose of CIC appointments?
a. Senior-most Cabinet Minister
b. Leader of the single largest opposition group in the Lok Sabha
c. Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. Prime Minister
163. Section 12(4) vests general superintendence, direction, and management of the CIC in:
a. Union Cabinet
b. Chief Information Commissioner
c. Central Government Secretary
d. Supreme Court
164. The Chief Information Commissioner can exercise powers:
a. Only with approval of Central Government
b. Autonomously, without being subjected to directions from any other authority under the Act
c. Only under Supreme Court orders
d. Only with concurrence of all Information Commissioners
165. Section 12(5) states that the CIC and Information Commissioners must be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge in:
a. Law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media, or administration and governance
b. Sports and entertainment only
c. Only law or administration
d. Only social service
166. According to Section 12(6), a CIC or Information Commissioner cannot:
a. Be a Member of Parliament or Legislature
b. Hold any office of profit
c. Be connected with a political party or carry on any business/profession
d. All of the above
167. The headquarters of the Central Information Commission is located at:
a. Mumbai
b. Kolkata
c. Delhi
d. Chennai
168. Can the Central Information Commission establish offices outside Delhi?
a. No, headquarters must remain Delhi only
b. Yes, with previous approval of the Central Government
c. Only in State capitals automatically
d. Only in metropolitan cities
169. The main objective of Section 12 is to:
a. Provide a statutory framework for an independent authority to enforce the Right to Information and manage related functions
b. Allow the government to control RTI decisions
c. Limit public access to information
d. Only maintain records of applications
170. The Chief Information Commissioner holds office:
a. For life
b. For such term as may be prescribed by the Central Government, and is not eligible for reappointment
c. For 10 years with eligibility for reappointment
d. Until resignation only
171. The maximum age limit for a Chief Information Commissioner is:
a. 60 years
b. 62 years
c. 65 years
d. 70 years
172. An Information Commissioner holds office:
a. For a fixed 3-year term
b. For such term as may be prescribed by the Central Government or until attaining the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier, and is not eligible for reappointment
c. For life
d. For 5 years with eligibility for reappointment
173. Can an Information Commissioner be appointed as the Chief Information Commissioner after vacating office?
a. No, never
b. Yes, in the manner specified in Section 12(3)
c. Only after 5 years
d. Only with approval of the Supreme Court
174. What is the maximum aggregate term if an Information Commissioner becomes the Chief Information Commissioner?
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
d. No limit
175. Before entering office, the Chief Information Commissioner or an Information Commissioner must:
a. Sign a declaration with the Prime Minister
b. Make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the President or a person appointed by the President
c. Give a written statement to the Central Government
d. Take no formal oath
176. Can the Chief Information Commissioner or an Information Commissioner resign?
a. Yes, at any time, by writing under their hand addressed to the President
b. No, only removal under Section 14 is allowed
c. Only after completing 3 years of service
d. Only with prior permission of the Prime Minister
177. Section 13(5) provides that salaries, allowances, and other terms of service:
a. May be changed to their disadvantage at any time
b. Shall be as prescribed by the Central Government and shall not be varied to their disadvantage after appointment
c. Are decided by the Parliament annually
d. Are fixed by the PIO
178. Section 13(6) requires the Central Government to provide the CIC and Information Commissioners with:
a. Legal advisors only
b. Such officers and employees as may be necessary for the efficient performance of their functions
c. Nothing, the CIC functions independently
d. Only administrative staff at its discretion
179. The officers and employees appointed under Section 13(6) have their salaries and conditions of service:
a. Fixed by the CIC
b. Prescribed by the Central Government
c. Determined by Parliament
d. Decided by the Supreme Court
180. Under Section 14(1), the Chief Information Commissioner or an Information Commissioner can be removed from office only by:
a. Executive order of the Prime Minister
b. Order of the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, after the Supreme Court reports on inquiry
c. Resolution of Parliament
d. Recommendation of the Central Government
181. Who conducts the inquiry before removal under Section 14(1)?
a. Central Government
b. Prime Minister
c. Supreme Court, on a reference made by the President
d. Parliament
182. Section 14(2) allows the President to:
a. Immediately remove the officer without inquiry
b. Suspend from office and prohibit attendance during the inquiry until receipt of the Supreme Court report
c. Reduce the salary of the officer
d. Transfer the officer to another office
183. Under Section 14(3), the President may remove the CIC or Information Commissioner without Supreme Court inquiry if the officer:
a. Is adjudged insolvent
b. Is convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude
c. Engages in paid employment outside the duties of office
d. Is unfit to continue due to mental or physical infirmity
e. Acquires financial or other interest likely to prejudice his functions
f. All of the above
184. According to Section 14(4), a Chief Information Commissioner or Information Commissioner is deemed guilty of misbehaviour if:
a. They refuse to take office
b. They are involved in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India and participate in the profit, except as a member in common with other members of an incorporated company
c. They attend meetings without leave
d. They make public statements about government policy
185. The grounds for removal in Section 14(3) are considered independent of:
a. Supreme Court inquiry under sub-section (1)
b. Recommendation of the Parliament
c. Election results
d. None of the above
186. The purpose of Section 14 is to:
a. Give the Central Government full control over removal
b. Ensure accountability of CIC and ICs while protecting their independence, similar to judicial officers, by providing clear grounds and procedure for removal
c. Allow easy removal for political reasons
d. Only regulate salary
187. Misbehaviour under Section 14(4) does NOT include:
a. Concerned or interested in a government contract for personal gain
b. Engaging in paid employment outside duties
c. Occasional consultation with a private company without profit
d. Conviction for moral turpitude
188. Every State Government is required to constitute a body called:
a. State Transparency Commission
b. (Name of the State) Information Commission to exercise powers under this Act
c. State Accountability Board
d. State Public Service Commission
189. The State Information Commission shall consist of:
a. Only the State Chief Information Commissioner
b. The State Chief Information Commissioner and such number of State Information Commissioners, not exceeding ten, as may be deemed necessary
c. Five members appointed by the Governor
d. Only State Information Commissioners without a Chief
190. The State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners are appointed by:
a. Chief Minister alone
b. Governor on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Chief Minister (Chairperson), the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly, and a Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister
c. State Legislative Assembly
d. Central Government
191. If the Leader of Opposition in the State Legislative Assembly is not recognized, who is deemed the Leader of Opposition?
a. Chief Minister
b. Speaker of the Assembly
c. Leader of the single largest group in opposition of the Government in the Legislative Assembly
d. Any senior member of opposition
192. Who has the general superintendence, direction, and management of the affairs of the State Information Commission?
a. Governor
b. Chief Minister
c. State Chief Information Commissioner, assisted by the State Information Commissioners
d. State Legislative Assembly
193. State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners must be persons of eminence in public life with experience in:
a. Law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media, administration, or governance
b. Only law and administration
c. Politics and government only
d. Business and trade only
194. Can the State Chief Information Commissioner or a State Information Commissioner hold any other office of profit or political position?
a. Yes, but only in NGOs
b. No, they shall not be a Member of Parliament or State Legislature, nor hold any office of profit, be connected with any political party, or pursue any business/profession
c. Yes, with prior approval of the Governor
d. Only while serving as an Information Commissioner
195. Where shall the headquarters of the State Information Commission be located?
a. At any place in the State, specified by the State Government in the Official Gazette
b. Only in the State capital
c. At the discretion of the Chief Information Commissioner
d. Anywhere in India
196. Can the State Information Commission establish offices at other places in the State?
a. No, only one office is allowed
b. Yes, with the previous approval of the State Government
c. Yes, without approval
d. Only after permission from the Central Government
197. The composition and appointment procedure of the State Information Commission ensures:
a. Central Government control over the State Commission
b. Autonomy and impartiality at the state level similar to the Central Information Commission
c. Political appointments by the ruling party
d. Only administrative oversight by the Governor
198. Who prescribes the salaries and allowances of the SCIC and SICs?
a. State Government
b. Governor
c. Central Government, and these conditions shall not be varied to their disadvantage after appointment
d. Chief Minister
199. Are officers and employees provided to the SCIC and SICs?
a. No, they must arrange their own staff
b. Yes, the Central Government shall provide officers and employees as necessary for efficient performance of their functions
c. Only with prior approval of the Central Government
d. Only if requested by the SCIC
200. Do the provisions of the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 apply retrospectively to SCICs and SICs appointed before the amendment?
a. Yes, automatically
b. No, they continue to be governed by the Act and rules as if the 2019 Amendment had not come into force
c. Only if the State Government decides
d. Only for salary and allowances
201. The term of office of the State Chief Information Commissioner is:
a. Five years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
b. For such term as may be prescribed by the Central Government
c. For a fixed term of six years
d. At the pleasure of the Governor
202. The State Chief Information Commissioner shall not hold office after attaining the age of:
a. 60 years
b. 62 years
c. 65 years
d. 67 years
203. Is the State Chief Information Commissioner eligible for reappointment?
a. Yes, once
b. Yes, till 65 years
c. Only with Governor’s approval
d. No, reappointment is not permitted
204. Every State Information Commissioner shall hold office:
a. For five years only
b. Till completion of term fixed by the Governor
c. For such term as may be prescribed by the Central Government or till attaining the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
d. Till removal under Section 17
205. A State Information Commissioner is eligible for reappointment as State Information Commissioner:
a. Yes, once
b. Yes, subject to age limit
c. Yes, if term is less than five years
d. No, reappointment as State Information Commissioner is barred
206. Upon vacating office, a State Information Commissioner is eligible for appointment as:
a. Central Information Commissioner
b. State Chief Information Commissioner
c. District Information Officer
d. Assistant Public Information Officer
207. If a State Information Commissioner is appointed as the State Chief Information Commissioner, the aggregate term of office shall not exceed:
a. Six years
b. Seven years
c. Five years
d. Till the age of 65 years only
208. Before entering office, the State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner shall make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before:
a. The Chief Justice of the High Court
b. The Chief Minister
c. The Governor or a person appointed by the Governor
d. The State Legislature
209. The form of oath or affirmation taken by the State Chief Information Commissioner is specified in:
a. Second Schedule
b. Rules framed under the Act
c. Constitution of India
d. First Schedule of the RTI Act
210. Which authority prescribes the term of office of the State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners under Section 16?
a. State Government
b. Governor
c. Information Commission
d. Central Government
211. The State Chief Information Commissioner or a State Information Commissioner may resign from office by:
a. Oral intimation to the Governor
b. Written resignation to the Chief Minister
c. Writing under his hand addressed to the Governor
d. Notification in the Official Gazette
212. The resignation of the State Chief Information Commissioner becomes effective upon:
a. Acceptance by the Chief Minister
b. Approval of the State Cabinet
c. Gazette notification
d. Writing under his hand addressed to the Governor
213. Even after resignation provisions, removal of the State Chief Information Commissioner shall be governed by:
a. Section 14
b. Section 18
c. Section 19
d. Section 17
214. The salaries, allowances and other terms and conditions of service of the State Chief Information Commissioner are prescribed by:
a. State Government
b. Governor
c. State Legislature
d. Central Government